13 for sin indeed was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not counted where there is no law.
Verses 13 to 17 contrast the one man’s (Adam’s) sin with Christ’s obedience. The consequent actions of these two men have far-reaching effects on humanity. As peace with God was lost through one man, so it was gained through another.
Verses 13 and 14 give an explanation of what Paul said in verse 12. All die because one sinned. The sin of all is the sin of one; there is solidarity between the one and the many. That is federal representation; both Adam and Christ represent people as their federal heads.
Before the fall of Adam, God dealt with Adam and Eve on the basis of love. After the fall, He dealt with them on the basis of justice. His justice had to be satisfied before He could relate to the human race. Adam’s sin brought the age of innocence to a conclusion because he broke ranks with God. Spiritual death became the status of man.
13 for
The “for” indicates that verses 13 and 14 are designed to substantiate verse 12.
sin indeed was in the world before the law [Mosaic] was given,
The word “sin” in the singular refers to the principle of sin, whereas “sin” in the plural refers to the practice of sin. The principle of sin is our sin capacity, and this is what is referred to here.
Sin as a principle entered into the world by Adam’s one act of sin. The entire human race entered into Adam’s sin seminally by this one act. Adam’s one sin was different in kind from the sin of those who lived between Adam and the giving of the Mosaic law. Adam’s act of sin did involve a known directive revealed by God (2:17) but not an explicit commandment such as the Mosaic law. Violation of an explicit commandment is a “transgression” (which did not occur until years later under the Mosaic law). Violation of a known overt law of God increases the rebellion. This is what we call a “transgression” as over against a simple sin. Adam’s sin was not equal to a transgression (4:15; 5:14).
PRINCIPLE:
Men did not die spiritually before the law because of their personal sin but because of the principle of sin derived from Adam’s sin.
APPLICATION:
God did not hold people accountable before the law in the same sense as He held those who had the Mosaic law. However, those who died during the pre-Mosaic period did so because of Adam’s sin. All men universally participate in Adam’s sin. This imputed sin resulted in their death both physically and spiritually. Before the Mosaic law men were sinners but they were not aware of its significance. They committed sins but not transgressions.
Mankind sinned in Adam, who transgressed the law of not eating of the tree. This parlays our penalty or sentence of death to the sin of Adam. We are born into a state of spiritual death because of Adam’s sin.
Between Adam and Moses all men died physically because they were dead spiritually already in Adam. God did not impute to their account sins that they themselves committed; they did not die because of something they did. They died because of the sin of Adam; his transgression was passed on to them. The sin of one became the sin of all. Those whom God saved He saved because of His grace (vv. 18ff).
I think the author may be missing the point that Paul is making. Paul is certainly saying all mankind were in Adam when he sinned so we are born with sin. But the statement that “God does not charge where no sin exists because there is no law” means that he didn’t hold people guilty for sinful behavior is both wrong and contradicts Scripture.
Of course there was law. If sin was not charged, why did the flood happen? How could Noah be a preacher of righteousness before the flood, as 2 Pet 2:5 states? How could, as Jude 15 notes, Enoch speak of God’s judgment upon the pre-flood world for their acts, their ways and their ungodly words against the creator? Then we have the sin of murder with Cain, which was known and cited by Lamech some years later shows the presence of law and judgment before Moses is indisputable. Genesis is discusses numerous instances of people citing God’s judgment for sin. Even so, there is no better verse attesting to the presence of God’s law than what God speaks in Gen 26:5 “because Abraham obeyed me and kept my requirements, my commands, my decrees and my laws.” Moreover, we have God declaring the wickedness of Amorites was not yet complete for their removal. He destroys Sodom and Gomorrah and the other valley cities because of wickedness. He judges Abimelech of Gerar for sinning against Abraham by setting aside Sarai for marriage. You can put aside the Mosaic law for a moment. History demonstrates that mankind operated by laws well before the Mosaic law.
I would also point out that a significant number of laws given at Sinai were commanded and required by God before Israel accepted the conditions of the Covenant. Passover, unleavened bread, circumcision, the Sabbath, the law of obedience at Marah, intermarrying with Canaanites, levirate marriage, adultery, laws regarding clean and unclean animals and atonement sacrifice are all present throughout Genesis, and before the enactment of the Covenant at Sinai.
Paul knew these laws existed. Was he wrong in Romans, or are we misreading his point? I think we’re misreading him. I believe he’s implying that mankind both has inherited sin from Adam’s act, and because of that all of us have violated the law of either code or the knowledge of good and evil we are charged with sin. Punished or not, we are all guilty.
Am I incorrect? Thanks.
Mike, I think you missed my point that the law did not become “extant” until the giving of the law of Moses. Paul’s point that sin/s, which existed before the law, did not become a “transgression” until God gave the specific laws to Moses. The law is an expression of God’s character; that is, it was more than the establishment of mores for man. The Mosaic law made sin exceedingly sinful. The explicit purpose of the law was “added because of the transgressions,” (Gal 3:19). You may want to look at my study beginning with this verse and the following verses: https://versebyversecommentary.com/2000/02/18/galatians-319/ There is no doubt that God judged sins before the law, but that is not Paul’s point here. The context of Romans makes my point that “the law entered that the offense might abound,” (Rom 5:20).
Dear Author, despite your response to Mike’s valid comments, I still have a problem with the statements you made under “APPLICATION” that “Between Adam and Moses all men died physically because they were dead spiritually already in Adam. God did not impute to their account sins that they themselves committed; they did not die because of something they did”. Obviously, the second sentence cannot be correct, otherwise why did the people of Sodom die if it was not for the sins they committed themselves? Why did God threaten Abimelech with death for taking Abraham’s wife if not for the sin he was about to commit personally?
Charles, thanks for your post. Note that I do not affirm that God does not judge people for their sins, but I made this statement only in reference to the doctrine of imputation as it relates to federal headship. Did you read my studies on all of Romans 5:12? Reading these studies without the context of my total argument distorts my interpretation. The law made sin a transgression (the word transgression means to cross over a standard); that is, the law made sin extant. Previous to the law, that generation did not have laws that gave an overt standard by which they could judge their sins. I dealt only with “sin” in the singular, rather than “sins” in the plural. Sin in the plural is your point, of which I agree.